Re: __builtin_return_address(0) and schedule()

[Mauricio Lin <mauriciolin2000@xxxxxxxxxxxx>]

> If the caller function is not inlined, then IMHO  yes you can. If the 
> caller is inlined, likely you will land into 2nd degree caller (if 
> exist). CMIIW people
Do  you mean if there is a function A that calls an inline function B that  in turn calls schedule(), the __builtin_return_address(0) in schedule()  will return the address of function A?
  
  BR,
  
  Mauricio Lin.

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